<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?><!-- generator="wordpress/1.5.2" -->
<rss version="2.0" 
	xmlns:content="http://purl.org/rss/1.0/modules/content/">
<channel>
	<title>Comments on: My Country, Right or Wrong</title>
	<link>http://www.listlesslawyer.com/blog/?p=449</link>
	<description>The only demand I make of my reader is that he should devote his whole life to reading my works. --James Joyce</description>
	<pubDate>Thu, 09 Sep 2010 04:10:29 +0000</pubDate>
	<generator>http://wordpress.org/?v=1.5.2</generator>

	<item>
 		<title>Comment on My Country, Right or Wrong by: Robert</title>
		<link>http://www.listlesslawyer.com/blog/?p=449#comment-144</link>
		<pubDate>Sat, 11 Jun 2005 04:07:13 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid>http://www.listlesslawyer.com/blog/?p=449#comment-144</guid>
					<description>&lt;i&gt;If there is a higher moral law to which even governments must answer, then American officials should not be able to escape that justice simply by virtue of being Americans.&lt;/i&gt;

Agreed, 100 percent.  And in the case of the Nazi criminals, it was a higher moral law that was being enforced.  Justice was done--but my point is really that they had a hard time, as lawyers, figuring out how to justify it.  You'll remember that they simply took certain defenses away, &lt;i&gt;a priori&lt;/i&gt;, that would have been inconvenient legally--such as the &quot;following lawful orders&quot; defense which had previously been available to other military defendants. 

I personally believe in the moral law, and think justice was done at Nuremberg.  Probably, the governments and judges did about the best they could, being human.  

But as the quote I gave indicates, if America ever loses a war and gets occupied the President could be tried under the same legal theory, under the legislative authority of the victor's government.

Thank you for forcing me to think deeper about the matter.  I very much look forward to your international law post, which will doubtless add to my limited knowledge of the subject. </description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[	<p><i>If there is a higher moral law to which even governments must answer, then American officials should not be able to escape that justice simply by virtue of being Americans.</i></p>
	<p>Agreed, 100 percent.  And in the case of the Nazi criminals, it was a higher moral law that was being enforced.  Justice was done&#8211;but my point is really that they had a hard time, as lawyers, figuring out how to justify it.  You&#8217;ll remember that they simply took certain defenses away, <i>a priori</i>, that would have been inconvenient legally&#8211;such as the &#8220;following lawful orders&#8221; defense which had previously been available to other military defendants. </p>
	<p>I personally believe in the moral law, and think justice was done at Nuremberg.  Probably, the governments and judges did about the best they could, being human.  </p>
	<p>But as the quote I gave indicates, if America ever loses a war and gets occupied the President could be tried under the same legal theory, under the legislative authority of the victor&#8217;s government.</p>
	<p>Thank you for forcing me to think deeper about the matter.  I very much look forward to your international law post, which will doubtless add to my limited knowledge of the subject.
</p>
]]></content:encoded>
				</item>
	<item>
 		<title>Comment on My Country, Right or Wrong by: listless</title>
		<link>http://www.listlesslawyer.com/blog/?p=449#comment-143</link>
		<pubDate>Sat, 11 Jun 2005 01:14:39 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid>http://www.listlesslawyer.com/blog/?p=449#comment-143</guid>
					<description>Robert, if you take that position (that international law cannot be used to judge the officials of foreign governments) then why did we bother having trials at all? Trials are only needed if someone has broken &lt;i&gt;the law&lt;/i&gt; - but U.S. law didn't prohibit Germany's actions (no jurisdiction), and neither did German law. So we should have just dispensed with the false trials (since they were just for show?) and just executed or imprisoned people.

If there is a higher moral law to which even governments must answer, then American officials should not be able to escape that justice simply by virtue of being Americans. And if there is no higher moral law, then Nuremberg used the false appearance of trials to cloak the raw exercise of power. Because how else can you justify it?

Or am I missing something?</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[	<p>Robert, if you take that position (that international law cannot be used to judge the officials of foreign governments) then why did we bother having trials at all? Trials are only needed if someone has broken <i>the law</i> - but U.S. law didn&#8217;t prohibit Germany&#8217;s actions (no jurisdiction), and neither did German law. So we should have just dispensed with the false trials (since they were just for show?) and just executed or imprisoned people.</p>
	<p>If there is a higher moral law to which even governments must answer, then American officials should not be able to escape that justice simply by virtue of being Americans. And if there is no higher moral law, then Nuremberg used the false appearance of trials to cloak the raw exercise of power. Because how else can you justify it?</p>
	<p>Or am I missing something?
</p>
]]></content:encoded>
				</item>
	<item>
 		<title>Comment on My Country, Right or Wrong by: Robert</title>
		<link>http://www.listlesslawyer.com/blog/?p=449#comment-142</link>
		<pubDate>Fri, 10 Jun 2005 17:02:44 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid>http://www.listlesslawyer.com/blog/?p=449#comment-142</guid>
					<description>Listless, your post is commendable for acknowledging the difficulties and complexities of the subject.

I've done a lot of reading and studying on WW II, including the Nuremberg trials, and as I'm sure you know the great difficuly was that there was no existing law that allowed for the kind of trials that were held.

“We sit,” said the American judges, “as a Tribunal drawing its sole power and jurisdiction from the will and command of the four occupying powers. . . .   In so far as Control Council Law No. 10 may be thought to go beyond established principles of international law, its authority, of course, rests upon the exercise of the ‘sovereign legislative power’ of the countries to which the German Reich unconditionally surrendered.”

In other words we won, and international law didn't have much to do with it.  There were a lot of Nazis who deserved punishment, but even at the time a lot of lawyers in the U.S. and elsewhere were uncomfortable with justifications that were invented.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[	<p>Listless, your post is commendable for acknowledging the difficulties and complexities of the subject.</p>
	<p>I&#8217;ve done a lot of reading and studying on WW II, including the Nuremberg trials, and as I&#8217;m sure you know the great difficuly was that there was no existing law that allowed for the kind of trials that were held.</p>
	<p>“We sit,” said the American judges, “as a Tribunal drawing its sole power and jurisdiction from the will and command of the four occupying powers. . . .   In so far as Control Council Law No. 10 may be thought to go beyond established principles of international law, its authority, of course, rests upon the exercise of the ‘sovereign legislative power’ of the countries to which the German Reich unconditionally surrendered.”</p>
	<p>In other words we won, and international law didn&#8217;t have much to do with it.  There were a lot of Nazis who deserved punishment, but even at the time a lot of lawyers in the U.S. and elsewhere were uncomfortable with justifications that were invented.
</p>
]]></content:encoded>
				</item>
	<item>
 		<title>Comment on My Country, Right or Wrong by: listless</title>
		<link>http://www.listlesslawyer.com/blog/?p=449#comment-141</link>
		<pubDate>Fri, 10 Jun 2005 02:50:10 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid>http://www.listlesslawyer.com/blog/?p=449#comment-141</guid>
					<description>In order to be punished in the U.S. courts, a U.S. official would have to violate U.S. law. U.S. Courts don't apply international law directly, so a violation of, say, the Geneva Conventions can't be punished in the U.S. system unless it also happens to be a violation of U.S. law.

So what you're suggesting is that international law should either be scrapped or it should be unenforceable? That's great when it applies to us - but what about the rest of the world. Did we have the right to try and convict the Nazi's under international law? To try Milosevic? To try Saddam? There's no way to convict any of these monsters under their domestic law, obviously. And if we don't hold ourselves to the standards of international law, then won't the rest of the world just think that &quot;international law&quot; is code for &quot;do what the U.S. says to do&quot;?

I'm just thinking out loud here.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[	<p>In order to be punished in the U.S. courts, a U.S. official would have to violate U.S. law. U.S. Courts don&#8217;t apply international law directly, so a violation of, say, the Geneva Conventions can&#8217;t be punished in the U.S. system unless it also happens to be a violation of U.S. law.</p>
	<p>So what you&#8217;re suggesting is that international law should either be scrapped or it should be unenforceable? That&#8217;s great when it applies to us - but what about the rest of the world. Did we have the right to try and convict the Nazi&#8217;s under international law? To try Milosevic? To try Saddam? There&#8217;s no way to convict any of these monsters under their domestic law, obviously. And if we don&#8217;t hold ourselves to the standards of international law, then won&#8217;t the rest of the world just think that &#8220;international law&#8221; is code for &#8220;do what the U.S. says to do&#8221;?</p>
	<p>I&#8217;m just thinking out loud here.
</p>
]]></content:encoded>
				</item>
	<item>
 		<title>Comment on My Country, Right or Wrong by: kate</title>
		<link>http://www.listlesslawyer.com/blog/?p=449#comment-140</link>
		<pubDate>Fri, 10 Jun 2005 01:19:46 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid>http://www.listlesslawyer.com/blog/?p=449#comment-140</guid>
					<description>If a US official violates International law, he should be held accountable under the US system.

This is known as the consent of the governed.

The US constitution calls for the US to have a legal system.  We elect officials who select our judges.

We understand our rights under the legal system.

No US official should be held accountable to an international court that has no ties to the American people.  </description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[	<p>If a US official violates International law, he should be held accountable under the US system.</p>
	<p>This is known as the consent of the governed.</p>
	<p>The US constitution calls for the US to have a legal system.  We elect officials who select our judges.</p>
	<p>We understand our rights under the legal system.</p>
	<p>No US official should be held accountable to an international court that has no ties to the American people.
</p>
]]></content:encoded>
				</item>
</channel>
</rss>
